Do the fixed effects regression assumptions in Key Concept 10.3 imply that (operatorname{cov}left(widetilde{v}_{i t}, widetilde{v}_{i s} ight)=0)
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Do the fixed effects regression assumptions in Key Concept 10.3 imply that \(\operatorname{cov}\left(\widetilde{v}_{i t}, \widetilde{v}_{i s}\right)=0\) for \(t eq s\) in Equation (10.28)? Explain.
Equation (10.28)
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