What does the Keynesian consumption function imply about the average propensity to consume of a rich versus
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What does the Keynesian consumption function imply about the average propensity to consume of a rich versus a poor country? Which country should have a higher average propensity to consume?
How can you explain the relatively low levels of saving of rich countries?
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Keynesian Consumption Function and Average Propensity to Consume The Keynesian consumption function suggests that individuals consume a portion of the...View the full answer
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