1. The lower court concluded that the note was non-negotiable and dismissed the bank's attempt to enforce it. Was this an error?
2. Suppose that the note in this case had stated, "The terms of the mortgage are by this reference made a part hereof." Would the result have been different?
3. How did the fact that "the promissory note in this case contains language that is standard in mortgage notes across the country" affect the court's reasoning?