In August 2000, in California, Terry Reigelsperger sought treatment for pain in his lower back from chiropractor James Siller. Reigelsperger felt better after the treatment and did not intend to return for more, although he did not mention this to Siller. Before leaving the office, Reigelsperger signed an “informed consent” form that read, in part, “I intend this consent form to cover the entire course of treatment for my present condition and for any future condition(s) for which I seek treatment.” He also signed an agreement that required the parties to submit to arbitration “any dispute as to medical malpractice. . . . This agreement is intended to bind the patient and the health care provider . . . who now or in the future treat[s] the patient.” Two years later, Reigelsperger sought treatment from Siller for a different condition relating to his cervical spine and shoulder. Claiming malpractice with respect to the second treatment, Reigelsperger filed a suit in a California state court against Siller. Siller asked the court to order that the dispute be submitted to arbitration. Did Reigelsperger’s lack of intent to return to Siller after his first treatment affect the enforceability of the arbitration agreement and consent form? Why or why not?