The point was made above that it would normally be irrational to prefer one basis of charging
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The point was made above that it would normally be irrational to prefer one basis of charging overheads to jobs simply because it apportions either a higher or a lower amount of overheads to a particular job. This is because the total overheads are the same irrespective of the method of charging the total to individual jobs.
Can you think of any circumstances where it may not be so irrational?
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Related Book For 
Accounting And Finance For Non Specialists
ISBN: 9781292334691
12th Edition
Authors: Peter Atrill, Eddie McLaney
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