Suppose that F (x) = (x) and G(x) = g(x). Is it true that y = F(x)G(x)

Question:

Suppose that F (x) = ƒ(x) and G(x) = g(x). Is it true that y = F(x)G(x) is an antiderivative of y = ƒ(x)g(x)? Confirm or provide a counterexample.

Fantastic news! We've Found the answer you've been seeking!

Step by Step Answer:

Related Book For  book-img-for-question

Calculus

ISBN: 9781319055844

4th Edition

Authors: Jon Rogawski, Colin Adams, Robert Franzosa

Question Posted: