Explain what arbitrageurs would do if the price of an American call on \(\mathrm{ABC}\) stock with an exercise price of \(\$ 50\) were priced at \(\$ 9\) when the underlying price on \(\mathrm{ABC}\) stock were trading at \(\$ 60\). What impact would their actions have in the option market on the call's price? Would arbitrageurs follow the same strategy if the call option were European? If not, why?