Assume there is a risk-free asset in zero net supply. Let = ( 1
Question:
Assume there is a risk-free asset in zero net supply. Let θ = (θ 1 ··· θ n) denote the vector of supplies of the n risky assets. Let μ denote the mean and the covariance matrix of the vector X˜ = (x˜1 ···˜xn) of asset payoffs. Assume is nonsingular. Suppose the utility functions of investor h are u0
(c) = −e−αhc and u1
(c) = −δhe−αhc
.
Let c0 denote the aggregate endowment H h=1 yh0 at date 0.
(a) Use the result of Exercise 2.2 on the optimal demands for the risky assets to show that the equilibrium price vector is p
def
= 1 Rf
(μ−αθ ). (4.24)
(b) Interpret the risk adjustment vector αθ in (4.24), explaining in economic terms why a large element of this vector implies an asset has a low price relative to its expected payoff.
(c) Assume δh is the same for all h (denote the common value by δ). Use the market-clearing condition for the date–0 consumption good to deduce that the equilibrium risk-free return is Rf def
= 1
δ
exp
α
*
θ
μ− c0
+
− 1 2
α2
θ
θ
. (4.25)
(d) Explain in economic terms why the risk-free return (4.25) is higher when θ
μ is higher and lower when δ, c0, or θ
θ is higher.
(e) Assume different investors may have different discount factors δh. Set
τh = 1/αh and τ = H h=1 τh (which is aggregate risk tolerance). Show that the equilibrium risk-free return is (4.25) when we define
δ =,H h=1
δ
τh/τ
h ⇔ logδ = H h=1
τh
τ
logδh .
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