8. An urn contains N identical marbles numbered 1 through N. From the urn n marbles are...

Question:

8. An urn contains N identical marbles numbered 1 through N. From the urn n marbles are drawn and let X(n)  be the largest number drawn. Show that P(X(n) = k) = k−1 n−1

*N n



, k = n,n+1, . . . ,N, and EX(n) = n(N +1)/(n+1).

Fantastic news! We've Found the answer you've been seeking!

Step by Step Answer:

Related Book For  book-img-for-question

An Introduction To Probability And Statistics

ISBN: 9781118799642

3rd Edition

Authors: Vijay K. Rohatgi, A. K. Md. Ehsanes Saleh

Question Posted: