Does the inflated-variance QL approach make sense as a way to generalize the ordinary normal linear model
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Does the inflated-variance QL approach make sense as a way to generalize the ordinary normal linear model with v(????i) = ????2? Why or why not?
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Related Book For 
Foundations Of Linear And Generalized Linear Models
ISBN: 9781118730034
1st Edition
Authors: Alan Agresti
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