In the previous exercise, suppose ???? = 0 and the HPD interval for ???? is (0, U).
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In the previous exercise, suppose ????̂ = 0 and the HPD interval for ???? is (0, U).
Is (1∕U, ∞) the HPD interval or the equal-tail posterior interval for ????∗?
Do you think it is a sensible interval? Explain, and give implications for forming posterior intervals for parameters in logistic regression when there is complete or quasi-complete separation.
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Related Book For 
Foundations Of Linear And Generalized Linear Models
ISBN: 9781118730034
1st Edition
Authors: Alan Agresti
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