The derivative of (x) = x 2 is zero at x = 0, but is not

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The derivative of ƒ(x) = x2 is zero at x = 0, but ƒ is not a constant function. Doesn’t this contradict the corollary of the Mean Value Theorem that says that functions with zero derivatives are constant? Give reasons for your answer.

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Thomas Calculus Early Transcendentals

ISBN: 9780321884077

13th Edition

Authors: Joel R Hass, Christopher E Heil, Maurice D Weir

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