Use the IS - PC - MR diagram to show the logic behind the equation

\[ r_{0}-r_{s}=\frac{1}{a\left(\alpha+\frac{1}{\alpha \beta}\right)}\left(\pi_{0}-\pi^{T}\right) \]

(best response Taylor rule)

Approach the question as follows:

(a) Use the diagrams to show how the initial interest rate response to an inflation shock varies with the slope of the MR.

(b) What parameters affect the slope of the MR?

(c) Are your findings consistent with the best response Taylor rule equation?