The nonabelian Berry phase, by its very definition, changes the wave function, even though we return to
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The nonabelian Berry phase, by its very definition, changes the wave function, even though we return to the initial state in terms of \(K(t)\) (in the abelian case, the wave function changes by a phase, so \(|\psi|^{2}\) doesn't change). Can you give an example where this is consistent?
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