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1. From a jus ad bellum perspective, does the right of self-defence ever allow a state to lawfully use force against a non-state actor located
1. From a jus ad bellum perspective, does the right of self-defence ever allow a state to lawfully use force against a non-state actor located in another state without that other state's consent? Do you agree with the 'unwilling or unable' doctrine? What are its implications
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The Legal Environment of Business
Authors: Roger E Meiners, Al H. Ringleb, Frances L. Edwards
11th Edition
9781133419716, 538473991, 1133419712, 978-0538473996
