1) One at a time, you test how quickly each of the following substances will settle out of water. To measure this property, you separately test each of the following by placing 100 grams of the substance and 500 milliliters of water into a 1 liter jar and screw on the lid tightly. Then you shake the jar violently for 1 minute and set the jar down. Which one of the following would settle the fastest, creating the clearest water in the fastest amount of time?

A) gravel

B) clay

C) silt

D) sand

2) A soil is found to have 40% sand, 40% silt, and 20% clay. This soil would be referred to as:

A) silty

B) sandy

C) clayey

D) loamy

3) Soils with the greatest water-holding capacity tend to have:

A) poor aeration and lowest workability

B) poor nutrient-holding capacity and good workability

C) good water infiltration and workability

D) good aeration and poor workability

4) Which one of the following soil horizons is least likely to be interacting directly with living organisms?

A) A horizon

B) O horizon

C) E horizon

D) C horizon

5) Detritus feeders and decomposers are most likely found in the:

A) E and B horizon

B) A and O horizon

C) B and C horizon

D) C and E horizon

6) Severe wildfires followed by heavy rains have significantly eroded the soil of a formerly forested region. Which one of the following horizons is most likely intact with little disturbance?

A) A horizon

B) O horizon

C) E horizon

D) C horizon

7) Compared to inorganic fertilizers, organic fertilizers such as

A) cow manure applied to a field increase the chances of nutrient leaching.

B) cow manure applied to a field reduce the chances of nutrient leaching.

C) liquid ammonia sprayed on a field decrease the chances of nutrient leaching.

D) liquid ammonia sprayed on a field increase the formation of humus.

8) The future worldwide use of irrigation:A) is expected to double in the next 20 years due to increasing demands for foodB) is limited by the availability of freshwater, waterlogging, and salinization of soilsC) depends on new technologies to extract more groundwaterD) will require increased reliance on new hydrogen technologies to produce freshwater9) The development of new varieties of grain crops increased productivity by increasing the:

A) surface area of the leaves of the plants

B) size of the roots and ability to absorb water

C) strength of the stems to support more grains

D) size and number of seeds

10) In the last 50 years, the greatest progress in addressing worldwide hunger and malnutrition came from the:

A) use of better transportation methods to export grain more efficiently

B) development and use of new varieties of high-yielding wheat and rice

C) reduced reliance on pesticides, herbicides, and chemical fertilizers

D) widespread use of sustainable irrigation methods

11) Although the Green Revolution has greatly reduced world hunger and malnutrition, it has:

A) doubled the amount of land used to raise crops

B) not significantly increased the productivity of modern agriculture

C) required high levels of increasingly expensive fertilizer and pesticides

D) contributed significantly to the destruction of the ozone layer

12) The Hubbert peak accurately predicted

A) maximum U.S. oil consumption in 1972

B) maximum U.S. oil consumption continuing to climb through today.

C) maximum U.S. oil production about 1995.

D) maximum U.S. oil production about 1970.

13) Although considerable variation exists around the world, globally, the percent of fossil fuels that are used for the primary energy supply is more than:

A) 85%

B) 60%

C) 50%

D) 35%

14) The most cleanly burning fossil fuel available that produces the least pollutants is:

A) coal, usually found in deposits deep within the Earth

B) kerosene, found in deposits associated with oil wells

C) natural gas, usually found in deposits associated with oil

D) nuclear energy, produced from rocks and minerals within the Earth

15) More oil can be expected from a P50 of a 100 million barrel field than from an oil field with a:

A) P70 for a 100 million barrel field.

B) P10 for a 150 million barrel field.

C) P40 for a 200 million barrel field.

D) P95 for a 90 million barrel field.

16) Because of the challenges associated with removing oil from the ground:

A) the first oil removed from a well is the most expensive to extract.

B) enhanced recovery of oil is more expensive than secondary recovery.

C) primary recovery of oil is more expensive than secondary recovery.

D) only about 60% of the oil in a well can be removed by just pumping.

17) Radiation exposure immediately around a properly functioning nuclear power plant is about

A) less than 1% of natural background exposure

B) double normal environmental background exposure.

C) 10 times higher than normal environmental background exposure.

D) 100 times higher than normal environmental background exposure.

18) Which of the following statements is true?

A) Fission begins with one reactant and yields two atomic products and a release of energy.

B) Fission begins with two reactants and yields one atomic product and a release of energy.

C) Fusion combines three reactants and yields one atomic product and a release of energy.

D) Fusion begins with one reactant and yields two atomic products and a release of energy.

19) Carbon-12 and carbon-14 are isotopes of carbon. These isotopes differ in the number of:

A) protons

B) neutrons

C) electrons

D) protons, neutrons, or electrons

20) Nuclear bombs rely upon:

A) a domino effect that causes the nuclear fission of uranium-235 in less than a second

B) a domino effect that causes the nuclear fusion of uranium-235 in less than a second

C) an instantaneous fission of uranium-235 under extreme pressures

D) an instantaneous fusion of uranium-235 under extreme pressures

21) Enrichment of nuclear fuel:

A) increases the relative concentration of uranium-235 to only 3-5% to avoid any possibility of nuclear explosion at higher percentages

B) increases the relative concentration of uranium-235 to 30-50% to avoid a nuclear explosion at higher percentages

C) decreases the relative concentration of uranium-235 from 60% to only 3-5% to avoid a nuclear explosion at higher percentages

D) decreases the relative concentration of uranium-235 from 100% to 30-50% to avoid a nuclear explosion at higher percentages

22) The actual fission reactions that release energy in a nuclear power plant are about:

A) two-thirds from uranium-235 and one-third from uranium-239

B) one-third from uranium-235 and two-thirds from uranium-239

C) two-thirds from uranium-235 and one-third from plutonium-239

D) one-third from uranium-235 and two-thirds from plutonium-239

23) A self-amplifying reaction and a nuclear explosion in a nuclear power plant are prevented in large part by:

A) the regular addition of uranium-239 to the fuel

B) control rods that absorb extra neutrons

C) the production of plutonium-239

D) fuel rods that absorb tremendous amounts of heat

24) Compared to a nuclear plant, a coal-fired plant

A) releases more than 100 times more radioactivity because of radioactive elements in coal.

B) requires much less mining and results in fewer mining deaths.

C) contributes to acid rain, and a nuclear plant does not.

D) emits much less carbon dioxide.

25) Radioactive wastes consist of:

A) the direct products of fission.

B) the indirect products of fission.

C) the direct and indirect products of fusion.

D) the direct and indirect products of fission.