Question
[1] Short-term finance: [A] ensures that sufficient equipment is available to produce the amount of product desired on a daily basis. [B] ensures that dividends
[1] Short-term finance: [A] ensures that sufficient equipment is available to produce the amount of product desired on a daily basis.
[B] ensures that dividends are paid to all stockholders on an annual basis.
[C] is concerned with managing net working capital.
[2] Net working capital is best defined as: [A] excess cash on hand.
[B] a firm's current assets.
[C] current assets minus current liabilities.
[3] A business entity formed by two or more individuals who each have unlimited liability for business debts is called a: [A] corporation.
[B] general partnership.
[C] sole proprietorship.
[4] Which form(s) of business is a treated as a distinct legal entity separate from its owners? [A] Sole proprietorship
[B] General partnership
[C] Corporation
[5] The primary goal of financial management is to: [A] maximize current dividends per share of the existing stock.
[B] minimize operational costs and maximize firm efficiency.
[C] maximize the current value per share of the existing stock.
[6] Which one of these terms refers to a conflict of interest between the stockholders and managers of a corporation? [A] Corporate activism
[B] Breach of indemnity
[C] Agency problem
[7] The long-term debts of a firm are liabilities: [A] owed to the firm's shareholders.
[B] that do not come due for at least 12 months.
[C] owed to the firm's suppliers.
[8] Your _____ tax rate measures the total taxes you pay divided by your total taxable income. [A] average
[B] marginal
[C] total
[9] Book value is: [A] based on historical cost.
[B] equivalent to market value for firms with fixed assets.
[C] the amount a willing buyer will pay for an asset.
[10] The quick ratio is calculated as: [A] current assets divided by current liabilities.
[B] current assets minus inventory, divided by current liabilities.
[C] net working capital divided by current liabilities.
[11] Which ratio calculates the amount of sales generated by each $1 invested in assets? [A] Total asset turnover
[B] Return on equity
[C] Return on assets
[12] Which ratio computes the amount of net income generated per each $1 of sales? [A] EV multiple
[B] Return on equity
[C] Profit margin
[13] Which ratio identifies the amount shareholders are willing to pay for each $1 per share of earnings a firm generates? [A] Equity multiplier
[B] Return on equity
[C] Price-earnings ratio
[14] The value of a firm can be defined as the total present value of the firm's future cash flows.
[A] True
[B] False
[15] An annuity stream where the payments occur forever is called a(n): [A] annuity due.
[B] indemnity.
[C] perpetuity.
[16] A perpetuity differs from an annuity because: [A] perpetuity payments vary with the rate of inflation.
[B] perpetuity payments vary with the market rate of interest.
[C] perpetuity payments never cease.
[17] Discounting cash flows involves: [A] taking the cash discount offered on trade merchandise.
[B] discounting only those cash flows that occur at least ten years in the future.
[C] adjusting all expected future cash flows to their current value.
[18] An annuity: [A] is a stream of payments that fluctuate with current market interest rates.
[B] is a stream of equal payments that occur in equal periods of time for a finite period.
[C] has a longer life span than a perpetuity.
[18] Which term is defined as the present value of all future cash flows minus the initial cost? [A] Future value
[B] Net present value
[C] Simple value
[19] The yield to maturity on a bond is the rate: [A] computed as annual interest divided by the bond's market price.
[B] of return currently required by the market.
[C] of annual interest paid on the bond.
[20] A bond with both a face value and a market value of $1,000 is called a _____ bond. [A] par value
[B] premium
[C] discount
[21] A deferred call provision is designed to: [A] guarantee a bond will be repaid on a certain date prior to maturity.
[B] prohibit the calling of a bond prior to a certain date.
[C] ensure bond holders receive full value when a bond is called.
[22] Which type of bond grants its holder the right to force repayment of the bond at a stated price prior to maturity? [A] Call
[B] Put
[23] The _____ premium is that portion of a nominal interest rate or bond yield that represents compensation for the possibility of nonpayment by the bond issuer. [A] interest rate risk
[B] liquidity
[C] default risk
[24] Bondholders are generally granted voting rights.
[A] True
[B] False
[25] Protective covenants: [A] are primarily designed to protect bondholders from future actions of the bond issuer.
[B] only apply to bonds that have a deferred call provision.
[C] are designed to protect the issuer should it default.
[26] Bonds issued by the U.S. government: [A] are considered to be default-free.
[B] are exempt from interest rate risk.
[27] Multiple classes of stock are primarily created to: [A] allow certain shareholders to retain control of a firm.
[B] replace cash dividends with share repurchases.
[28] A _____ is a form of equity security that has a stated liquidating value. [A] debenture
[B] bond
[C] preferred stock
[29] The voting procedure where you must own 50 percent plus one of the outstanding shares of stock to guarantee that you will win a seat on the board of directors is called straight voting. [A] True
[B] False
[30] The market in which new securities are originally sold to investors is called the _____ market. [A] secondary
[B] primary
[31] Preferred stock always has the right to vote.
[A] True
[B] False
[32] A market participant who buys and sells securities from inventory is called a dealer. [A] True
[B] False
[33] A stock that pays a constant annual dividend will have a market price that: [A] increases when the market rate of return increases.
[B] decreases when the market rate of return increases.
[34] Corporate dividends: [A] are always source of tax-free income for individual investors.
[B] are taxed at the personal level even though they are paid from aftertax income.
[35] The owner of preferred stock: [A] is entitled to a distribution of income prior to the common shareholders.
[B] is always guaranteed voting rights similar to a common shareholder.
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