1. Some people argue that corruption is more common in developing countries than in developed countries (this argument is itself open to question: see number 2 below). Assuming for a moment that corruption is a relatively more severe problem in developing countries, which way does causality run? Does underdevelopment cause corruption? Or, does corruption cause underdevelopment? 2. Is lobbying a form of corruption? How is lobbying similar to, or different from, bribery? Can the same activities be considered "corruption\" ifthey are illegal in a country and "not corruption" if they are legal