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1 . Why should the valuation from residual income and the valuation from a discounted cash flow model be the same or different? 2 .
Why should the valuation from residual income and the valuation from a discounted cash flow model be the same or different?
What is the reason for the time adjustment?
Since the analysts don't forecast beyond five years, what are we assuming in year six and beyond?
How is the terminal value assessed in this analysis?
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