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3) We have seen that the risk-neutral probability of a move up on the tree is given by p = when the underlying S does

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3) We have seen that the risk-neutral probability of a move up on the tree is given by p = when the underlying S does not pay dividends. In case er-v41-d it pays a dividend yield q that becomes p= What should p be in te case in which we are dealing with currency options? u-d

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