4. Consider our one-period portfolio choice model with two risky assets R1, R2 and a risk-free asset Rp. An investor with VN-M utility of end-of-period consumption optimally invests (01, 0) in the risky assets. Denote the expected returns of the risky assets as ji = (E(R1), E(R2)). = = (a) Suppose pi = Rp , do we still have p* O as in the case of single risky asset? (b) Suppose ji Rf , do we still have 0* > 0 as in the case of single risky asset? If your answer is yes, please give a proof. If your answer is no, please provide a counter example. Explain briefly the intuition of your results. 4. Consider our one-period portfolio choice model with two risky assets R1, R2 and a risk-free asset Rp. An investor with VN-M utility of end-of-period consumption optimally invests (01, 0) in the risky assets. Denote the expected returns of the risky assets as ji = (E(R1), E(R2)). = = (a) Suppose pi = Rp , do we still have p* O as in the case of single risky asset? (b) Suppose ji Rf , do we still have 0* > 0 as in the case of single risky asset? If your answer is yes, please give a proof. If your answer is no, please provide a counter example. Explain briefly the intuition of your results