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40: Suppose a shoe maker has a normal fixed expense of $0.50 per shoe at a yield of 10,000 shoes. On the off chance that
40: Suppose a shoe maker has a normal fixed expense of $0.50 per shoe at a yield of 10,000 shoes. On the off chance that he ex-panded creation to 12,500 shoes, what might his normal fixed costs be? Could a Short Run Average Cost bend at any point contain a point beneath the Long Run Average Cost bend? Why or why not
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