A currency dealer has good credit and can borrow either $$1,220,000$ or $1,000,000$ for one year. The one$-$year interest rate in the United States $($ $ $)$ is $5\mathrm{.}3\%,$ and the one$-$year rate in Eurozone $($i$)$ is $3\mathrm{.}9\%.$ If the one$-$year forward exchange rate is $$1\mathrm{.}22=1\mathrm{.}00,$ what must be the spot rate to eliminate arbitrage opportunities?

$$1\mathrm{.}2038/$

$$\frac{1\mathrm{.}2457}{}$

$$1\mathrm{.}3827/$

$$1\mathrm{.}2077/$