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A property that produces a level of NOI of $250,000 per year is expected to be sold in year 5 for $2,000,000. If the property

A property that produces a level of NOI of $250,000 per year is expected to be sold in year 5 for $2,000,000. If the property was purchased for $2,000,000, what percent of the IRR can be attributed to the sale price only? Does this imply that the property is more or less risky? Why?

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