A recent study study of 2,000 people finds that 1 additional year of education correlates to a $2,500 higher annual salary. Policy makers are determined to make higher education free for everyone, leading everyone to be richer. You begin to replicate the study. You happen to have data on the same 2,000 people, including their IQ (as a proxy for ability) and parents' income (as a proxy for ties to wealth). When you add IQ and parents' wealth to the regression, your calculations suggest that 1 additional year of education only correlates to a $500 higher annual salary. Is this an example of omitted variable bias