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A) RFC Corp. has announced a $1 dividend. If RFCs price last price cum-dividend is $50, what should its first ex-dividend price be (assuming perfect
A) RFC Corp. has announced a $1 dividend. If RFCs price last price cum-dividend is $50, what should its first ex-dividend price be (assuming perfect capital markets)? Why?
B) Does your answer change in imperfect markets, i.e in the presence of taxes and bankruptcy costs?
Please show work for part A and B
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