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a) Show that a function f on X to R is X-measurable ifand only if the set A?= {x? X : f (x) > ?}

a) Show that a function f on X to R is X-measurable ifand only if the set A?= {x? X : f (x) > ?} belongs to Xfor each rational number ?.b) Show that a function f on X to R is X-measurable i 2 answers

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