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A systems administrator recently conducted a vulnerability scan of the intranet. Subsequently the organization was successfully attacked by an adversary. Which of the following is

A systems administrator recently conducted a vulnerability scan of the intranet. Subsequently the organization was successfully attacked by an adversary. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for why the organizations network was compromised?

A. There was a false positive since the network was fully patched

B. The systems administrator did not perform a full scan

C. The systems administrator performed a credentialed scan

D. The vulnerability database was not updated

Someone on Chegg claimed that the Answer is "A", but the question doesn't indicate that the administrator applied a patch to the network and only initiated a vulnerability scan. I'm not to sure that Option A is correct, since subsequently (after the scan) the organization was attacked by an adversary. Wouldn't option B or Option D make more sense or am I reading to much into the question? If someone can explain I would greatly appreciate it.

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