Aaron owns two lots of real property, Lot 1 and Lot 2. Lot 1 is located next to a public right-of-way, but Lot 2 is landlocked from the public lot right-of-way by Lot 1. Aaron conveys Lot 2 to Bob with a deed, making no reference to any rights-of-way or any other kinds of easement benefiting Lot 2. Bob then sells Lot 2 to Carol. Carol claims against Aaron that she has a right-of-way easement over Lot 1 for the purposes of providing access from the public street to Lot 2. Does Carol have a valid claim? Explain your answer.