According to Fishman (2007), understandings of what causes erectile dysfunction have changed over the years. However, how we view erectile dysfunction in recent times mimics our understandings from the beginning of the 20th century in a way. In a short paragraph, explain both:

1.) How does Fishman believe our view of erectile dysfunction is similar in recent times to what it was in the early 20th century?

2.) What difference is there between our understanding in recent times and what we believed about erectile dysfunction in the early 20th century?