If the IASB conceptual framework had a paragraph inserted that addressed measurement and that paragraph suggested that one basis of measurement, such as present value, should be used by all reporting entities, thereby excluding the use of historical cost, do you think that all reporting entities would simply adopt this suggestion? Remember, accounting standards take precedence over the conceptual framework. What would you see as some of the impediments to standard-setters switching to present values as the basis for the measurement of assets?