After reading the SC decision in Roth v. USA, offer your opinion whether the Court provides "a good test for distinguishing worthless and worthwhile expression regarding sex" (200-202). Take into consideration subsequent decisions, especially Memoirs & Ginzburg respectively, and try to sort out the conceptual confusion that the Court addressed prior to Miller regarding obscenity. How does morality and legality clash in the early development to restrain public vulgarity?