An MNC has the following net exposures to the euro and the British pound: a net inflow of 24million British pounds and a net outflow of 26.4 million euros. The spot current spot rates are $1.2500/ and $1.1364/. If the pound and euro are perfectly positively correlated in their movement against the U.S. dollar, will the company have high or low exposure to foreign exchange? Explain why either way.