An opinion poll which has been conducted in France and Poland gives the following result: 59 percent of the electors have shown their intention to vote in the upcoming European elections with an error of 3.278% and a confidence level of 95.46% (k = 2).

This vote intention (59%) is the same in France and Poland. The distribution of the sample in both countries has been strictly proportionate to the universe size: two thirds were French citizens and a third was Polish.What is the sampling error in France?Could it be said that there will be a higher percentage of voters in the upcoming European elections if last elections (4 years ago) the percentage of voters in France was 55% and 53% in Poland?