Answer the following questions, including brief descriptions of how you get your answers.

$(0\mathrm{.}25$ points$)$ Assume we have two problems that are known to be NP$-$complete. Does this mean that there is a polynomial$-$time reduction between them?

$(0\mathrm{.}25$ points$)$ Let$$s assume that X is NP$-$complete, X polynomial$-$time reduces to Y$,$ and Y polynomial$-$time reduces to X$.$ Then, is Y necessarily NP$-$complete?