Any tutors know the answer?

Mark Twain wrote: "The man who does not read good books has no advantage over the man who cannot read them." An analytical interpretation of this quotation would be: A. illiterates are completely incapable of reading any type of book. B. people who do not read can be defined as and considered to be illiterate. C. there is no advantage at all in knowing how to read. O D. being uneducated and illiterate is just as deplorable as not taking advantage of one's education. E. None of these