argent answered required

17. Prove: Let p = (a; : iEl) be any point in a product space X = II (X, : iEn). Then, for any jo E I, {a) X II(X;: i#jo) is homeomorphic to II (X,: i * jo) (In the special case of Euclidean 3-space R3, this theorem states that the plane, say Y = R, X R, X (a;) = {(x, y, (3) : 2,y ER) through p - (@1, a2, (II, A;). Give an example to show that equality does not hold for (in) in general