As an analyst for a big firm, you use CAPM to estimate the equity cost of capital, but it just happens that when you calculate the market premium it's less than the risk-free rate over the previous 5 years because there was a recession over that period. What would you do in such a case? (You may choose more than one answer) a. You would accept the numbers as low as they are and apply it anyway in the model b. You would give up on CAPM as a flawed model in concept c. You would use a different market as a proxy for a well diversified portfolio d. You would make up some rationale for what a realistic equity risk premium ought to be and apply it in the model a e. You would go back further over a larger period like 10 years