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As long as the present loan-to-value ratio is sufficient to ensure adequate current collateral for a mortgage loan AND the current debt coverage ratio meets
As long as the present loan-to-value ratio is sufficient to ensure adequate current collateral for a mortgage loan AND the current debt coverage ratio meets the minimum requirements, should the lender be concerned about future cash flows or the trend of values for the property of the type being financed? What do you think? Discuss and provide insight 200 words
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