As you can see in the graph below, labour compensation as a share of GDP varies a lot around the world. Most countries have a labour share which is reasonably stable somewhere between 1/2 and 2/3rds (see e.g. the USA, China, or Brazil). But there are some countries (see Chile, Mongolia, and Qatar) where labour shares have been consistently below the global averages. According to the theory in economics,(refer any,)what factors could potentially explain these trends?

Please explain the question detailed, thanks a lot!

FRED~ Share of Labour Compensation in GDP at Current National Prices for United States Share of Labour Compensation in GDP at Current National Prices for China Share of Labour Compensation in GDP at Current National Prices for Brazil Share of Labour Compensation in GDP at Current National Prices for Chile Share of Labour Compensation in GDP at Current National Prices for Mongolia Share of Labour Compensation in GDP at Current National Prices for Qatar 0.7 0.6 0.5 Ratio 0.4 0.3 0.2 0.1 1992 1994 1996 1998 2000 2002 2004 2006 2008 2010 2012 2014 2016 Sources: University of Groningen, University of California, Davis fred.stlouisfed.org