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Assume all the following bonds are risk-free and with a par value $100: Bond A: one-year zero with 2% YTM Bond B: two-year zero with

Assume all the following bonds are risk-free and with a par value $100:

Bond A: one-year zero with 2% YTM

Bond B: two-year zero with 3% YTM

Bond C: Three-year zero with 4% YTM

Bond D: three-year 5% coupon-paying bond with YTM 4%.

Question: Is there any violation of the No-Arbitrage Principle? If there is, can you develop a strategy to exploit this opportunity?

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