Assume that Alex normally bills for services after the services are rendered to clients. However, knowing that

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Assume that Alex normally bills for services after the services are rendered to clients. However, knowing that these foreclosure clients are in precarious financial straits, Alex asks for, and gets, a $4,000 retainer "upfront."

Is this discrimination?
If so, is it illegal discrimination that would be actionable by Alex's clients? Why or why not?

Posted Date: Jun 12, 2024 11:09 AM

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Assume that Alex normally bills for services after the services are rendered to clients. However, knowing that

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