assume that instead of expected prepayment, there is an expected default rate in year 1 was 40% (and no defaults in year 2)? Assume that in case of default, BOA recovers 70% of the balance.

a. What would be the value of all IO strips in this case?

b. What would be the value of all PO strips?

c. What would be the BOAs profits?

d. Back to the original question without prepayment or default, assume that instead of selling the mortgages immediately, BOA sells them in one year. What is BOAs IRR from this deal (originate mortgages at t=0 and sell at t=1)? Note that BOA collects the first mortgage payment, so it sells just the one remaining payment.