Assume that you have a sample of n1 = 4, with the sample mean )'_(1 = 50, and a sample standard deviation of S1 = 7, and you have an independent sample of n2 = 5 from another population with a sample mean of )_(2 = 32 and the sample standard deviation 32 = 8. Assuming the population variances are equal, at the 0.01 level of significance, is there evidence that #1 > \"2