Assuming full$-$ratchet anti$-$dilution protection, what percentage of the company would an investor own, upon conversion to common shares, given the following? Prior conversion price is $$5.$ New conversion price is $$1.$ Common shares of $5$ million. Original investor contributed $$5$ million. New investor contributed $$10$ million.

Answers should be rounded to the nearest whole number, NOT written in percent format. For example, if the answer is $50\mathrm{.}5\%,$ you would input $51.$