At the end of the year, overhead applied was $41,500,000. Actual overhead was $40,300,000. Closing over/underapplied overhead into Cost of Goods Sold would cause net income to increase or decrease by how much and why?

Applied overhead (41.5k) > actual overhead (40.3k); since overapplied overhead will flow to the Cost of Goods Sold, net income should decrease, no?