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Back to the original question without prepayment or default, assume that instead of selling the mortgages immediately, BOA sells them in one year. What is

Back to the original question without prepayment or default, assume that instead of selling the mortgages immediately, BOA sells them in one year. What is BOAs IRR from this deal (originate mortgages at t=0 and sell at t=1)? Note that BOA collects the first mortgage payment, so it sells just the one remaining payment.

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