Based on the discounting of the Free Cash Flow to the Firm, a publicly$-$traded firm has an estimated total value of $53$bn$.$ The value of the equity $($based on the share price x number of outstanding shares$)$ is $53$bn$.$ The value of the debt is $10$bn$.$ The difference between the $2$ amounts $(53$bn and $63$bn$)$ can be explained by all the reasons below except $($choose one$)$:

A$.$ Your cost of debt is different from the one taken into account by the market

B$.$ Your assumption for the strength of the signalling value of debt is different from the one taken into account by the market.

C$.$ Your WACC is different from the WACC the market is using to value this firm

D$.$ Your assumptions for the Return on Capital of this firm is different from the one taken into account by the market

E$.$ Your assumption for future growth is different from the one taken into account by the market