Bill and Angie have been married for several years. One night, Bill indicates that he would like to have sex with Angie and Angie refuses. Bill forces himself on Angie and engages in sex without her consent. Angie contacts the police and Bill is charged with rape. At trial, Bill's attorney, Mr. Monroe, argues that his client should not be found guilty of rape because he is married to Angie Marriage, Mr. Monroe argues, provides implicit consent to sexual intercourse because traditionally marriage is commonly associated to procreation.

Is this a valid defense to the charge of rape? Why or why not?