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by fermit's little theorem if p is prime then modular inverse of a number a is equal to a^(p-2) mod p or just a^(p-2) ?

by fermit's little theorem if p is prime then modular inverse of a number a is equal to a^(p-2) mod p or just a^(p-2) ? Mod m will be there or not in the right side of equation?

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